Let me give everyone some stats. When $(Pfizer)$ studied those who were given treatment within 5 days, 1 percent were hospitalized in the treatment group versus 6.7 in the placebo. From an absolute risk standpoint, that is equivalent to a 6.7 - 1 = 5.7 percentage point difference. When $(Merck)$ studied those given treatment within 5 days of symptoms, 7.3 percent in the treatment group were hospitalized versus 14.1 percent in the placebo group. The absolute risk difference was 14.1 - 7.3 = 6.8. Therefore, Merck’s drug is actually more effective with their study population than Pfizer’s drug is with their study population. That’s the only thing we can conclude since it is obvious that Merck’s and Pfizer’s populations weren’t the same. Companies like to use relative ratios to report their efficacy because it makes the results look better. But absolute risk is actually the right way to compare. This is coming from a mathematician and statistician.